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Let $ a $, and $ b $ be real numbers. Show that: \begin{equation} \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\left(\sqrt{1 + (a \cos t + b \sin t)^2} + a \cos t + b \sin t\right)^2}{1 + \left(\sqrt{1 + (a \cos t + b \sin t)^2} + a \cos t + b \sin t\right)^2} \, dt = \arccos\left(-\frac{b}{\sqrt{1 + a^2 + b^2}}\right). \nonumber \end{equation}

I have been trying to prove this integral identity but have encountered some challenges. Here is the reasoning I have followed so far:

Trigonometric substitutions: I attempted to simplify the term $ a \cos t + b \sin t $ using the identity $ r \cos(t - \phi) $, where $ r = \sqrt{a^2 + b^2} $ and $ \phi = \arctan(b/a) $. This seemed natural, but it led to complicated expressions in terms of $ t - \phi $, and I couldn't make significant progress.

Change of variable: I considered a change of variable to take advantage of the symmetry of the interval $ [0, \pi] $, but it wasn’t clear how to simplify the square root in the numerator.

Relation to the arccos function: I suspect that the result involves some key property of trigonometric functions and their relation to the arccos function, but I am unsure how to connect this to the integrand.

This problem seems intriguing because it combines definite integrals, trigonometric terms, square roots, and inverse functions, suggesting there is an elegant simplification underlying it. I would appreciate any guidance on how to proceed or if there is a technique I might be overlooking.

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    $\begingroup$ Use mathjax to type equations & maths symbols, link: math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5020/… and approach zero website link( to avoid asking duplicate questions) link, approach0.xyz/search $\endgroup$
    – Guruprasad
    Commented Nov 30 at 15:23
  • $\begingroup$ @myplayaplay Are you sure the upper limit of the integral shouldn’t be $2\pi$? Integrating over a full period would make dealing with the phase offset easier. $\endgroup$
    – David H
    Commented Nov 30 at 16:16
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    $\begingroup$ The integral is indeed defined up to $\pi$, not $2 \pi$. While integrating over a full period might simplify handling the phase offset in periodic functions, the specific problem is set with an upper limit of $\pi$. To confirm its correctness, I tested the integral numerically using particular values for the parameters $a$ and $b$, and the results align perfectly with the analytical prediction: $\arccos\left(-\frac{b}{\sqrt{1 + a^2 + b^2}}\right)$ $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 30 at 16:41
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    $\begingroup$ Very often, it is advantageous to transform an expression like $a \cos t + b \sin t$ into : $c \cos(t-\alpha)$ where $c=\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$ and $\alpha = \arctan(\tfrac{b}{a})$ $\endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    Commented Nov 30 at 17:15

2 Answers 2

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Note that $$\frac{\left(\sqrt{1 + (a \cos t + b \sin t)^2} + a \cos t + b \sin t\right)^2}{1 + \left(\sqrt{1 + (a \cos t + b \sin t)^2} + a \cos t + b \sin t\right)^2} \\ =\frac12\bigg(1+\frac{a \cos t + b \sin t}{\sqrt{1 + (a \cos t + b \sin t)^2} } \bigg) \\ $$ Then \begin{align} I=& \ \frac12\int_0^\pi \bigg(1+\frac{a \cos t + b \sin t}{\sqrt{1 + (a \cos t + b \sin t)^2} } \bigg) dt\\ =&\ \frac\pi2 +\frac12\int_0^\pi \frac{d(a \sin t - b \cos t)}{\sqrt{1+a^2+b^2 - (a \sin t - b \cos t) ^2} } \\ = &\ \pi - \cos^{-1}\frac{b}{\sqrt{1 + a^2 + b^2}}= \cos^{-1}\frac{-b}{\sqrt{1 + a^2 + b^2}} \end{align}

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  • $\begingroup$ $\displaystyle +1$. As usual, you get a simple answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 30 at 19:46
  • $\begingroup$ WOW! Thank you so much! :) $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 30 at 21:07
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Let $x = a\cos t + b \sin t = r \sin(t+c)$ where $r=\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$, $\sin c = a/r$, and $\cos c = b/r$. After some algebraic manipulations, we can simplify the integrand considerably: $$ \frac{(\sqrt{1+x^2}+x)^2}{1+(\sqrt{1+x^2}+x)^2} = \frac12\left(1 + \frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\right). $$

The integral of the first term is simply $\frac\pi2$. The integral of the second term is $$ \frac12\int_0^\pi \frac{r\sin(t+c)}{\sqrt{1+r^2 \sin^2(t+c)}}~dt = \frac12\int_{-b}^b \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+r^2 - y^2}}~dy = \int_{0}^b \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+r^2 - y^2}}~dy, $$ where I substituted $y=r\cos(t+c)$. The antiderivative of the integrand is $-\arccos\left(\frac{y}{\sqrt{1+r^2}}\right)$, so the integral is $$ \int_{0}^b \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+r^2 - y^2}}~dy = -\arccos\left(\frac{b}{\sqrt{1+r^2}}\right) + \frac\pi2. $$ Therefore, the full integral evaluates to $$ \pi - \arccos\left(\frac{b}{\sqrt{1+r^2}}\right) = \arccos\left(-\frac{b}{\sqrt{1+r^2}}\right). $$

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