Skip to main content
6 votes

How to prove $\exists x (x=a)$ in intuitionistic logic

$(\exists \text I)$ holds intuitionistically. The correct application of the rule is: with $(x=a)$ as $\varphi$, from $\varphi[x/a]$, that is $(a=a)$, derive $\exists x \varphi$, that amounts to $\...
Mauro ALLEGRANZA's user avatar

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible