I'm new to the hypergeometric series, and I'm trying to decipher a proof in which the author identifies a particular finite sum as a a hypergeometric series. The particular summation is:
$$ \begin{array}{l} \sum_{j=0}^{k}\frac{(-n)_j(n+\alpha+\beta+1)_j(-k)_j}{(m-k+1)_j(-m-\gamma-\delta-k)_jj!}\times \\ \sum_{l=0}^{m+n-k}\frac{(-m-n+k)_l(m-n+\gamma+\delta+k+1)_l(\gamma+\alpha+k+1)_l}{(\gamma-n+k+1)_l(\alpha+\beta+\gamma+\delta+2k+2)_ll!}= \\ _3F_2\left(\begin{array}{c} -n, & n+\alpha+\beta+1, & -k; & 1 \\ -m-\gamma-\delta-k, & m-k+1 \end{array}\right)\times \\ _3F_2\left(\begin{array}{c} -n-m+k, & m-n+\gamma+\delta+k+1, & \alpha+\gamma+k+1; & 1 \\ \gamma-n+k+1, & \alpha+\beta+\gamma+\delta+2k+2 \end{array}\right)\end{array} $$
My question is:
Why is this equality true if the upper limits on the sums are finite?
All of the definitions that I have seen for the hypergeometric functions give infinite upper limits (e.g. Abramowitz & Stegun [1], and Wolfram's function site [2]).
[1] http://people.math.sfu.ca/~cbm/aands/page_556.htm
[2] http://functions.wolfram.com/HypergeometricFunctions/Hypergeometric3F2/02/