I seem to remember a proof by Euler, involving infinite series, which was really complex (for a maths hobbyist). I believe it was sent in a letter to someone, and that it ended up with $\pi = 0$ or something. I was just wondering if anyone has any idea what I'm talking about, or if it was someone else.


  • $\begingroup$ I think you are confused with sin(2pi) = sin(0) or such ? $\endgroup$ – mick Oct 22 '14 at 21:40
  • $\begingroup$ I've heard of false proofs that show $1+2+3+\cdots=-1/12$ or an incorrect limit showing $\pi=2$, but I have never heard of a false proof that $\pi=0$. $\endgroup$ – Clayton Oct 22 '14 at 21:40
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ Take a Cricle. The ratio of the diameter of the circle and the circumference is pi. The circle looks like 0 therefore $\pi=0\ \square$ $\endgroup$ – Ali Caglayan Oct 22 '14 at 21:41
  • $\begingroup$ It's not either of those (I do quite like the -1/12 one) although it might be the incorrect limit of \pi=2. This was a proof that Euler knew was wrong but I think he wanted to see if the other person could figure out where? I'm not sure, but a link to the \pi=2 would be nice. $\endgroup$ – Oscar S Oct 22 '14 at 21:43
  • $\begingroup$ @alizter That's amusing but no thats not it :) $\endgroup$ – Oscar S Oct 22 '14 at 21:45


  • $\begingroup$ Or was it perhaps this ? $\endgroup$ – Lucian Oct 22 '14 at 23:19
  • $\begingroup$ I think it might be the generality of algebra thing, so I'm going to google around a bit more to find the exact thing im looking for. Thanks :) $\endgroup$ – Oscar S Oct 22 '14 at 23:28

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.