While doing some mathematical modelling of planetary orbits I have come up with two definite integrals $D_1$ and $D_2$ which appear to produce the same result when I test (using www.WolframAlpha.com) for various values of $a$ where $0<a<1$. $$ D_1 \, =\, \int_0^{2\pi}f_1\,\mathrm{d}\theta \, =\, \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{3a\sin^2\theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^4}\mathrm{d}\theta \,=\, \frac{3a\pi}{(1-a^2)^{5/2}} \, =\,R $$ and $$ D_2 \, =\, \int_0^{2\pi}f_2\,\mathrm{d}\theta \, =\, \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\cos \theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^3}\,\mathrm{d}\theta \, =\, \frac{3a\pi}{(1-a^2)^{5/2}} \, =\,R $$
How could I go about proving:-
(1) $D_1$ = $D_2$,
(SOLVED, I think, by my two answers below, but using WolframAlpha to obtain integral solutions) $$$$
(2) $D_1$ = $R$ or $D_2$ = $R$.
(MOVED to a separate question: Prove $\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{3a\sin^2\theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^4}$ or $\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\cos\theta}{(1-a\cos\theta)^3}=\frac{3a\pi}{(1-a^2)^{5/2}}$).
UPDATE 1
You can see how WolframAlpha produces these results by inputting the following input texts:-
For Eqtn 1 with a=0.1 input: integrate (3*0.1(sinx)^2)/((1-0.1*cosx)^4) from x=0 to 2*pi
For Eqtn 2 with a=0.1 input: integrate (cosx)/((1-0.1*cosx)^3) from x=0 to 2*pi
for Result with a=0.1 input: evaluate 3 0.1 pi/(1-0.1^2)^(5/2)
UPDATE 2
WolframAlpha also computes expressions for the indefinite integrals as follows:- $$I_1 \, =\, \int\frac{3a\sin^2\theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^4}\mathrm{d}\theta \,=\, $$ $$constant1 + \frac {a\,\sqrt{a^2-1}\sin\theta\,[-(2a^3+a)\cos^2\theta+3(a^2+1)cos\theta+a(2a^2-5)]} {2(a^2-1)^{5/2}(a\cos\theta-1)^3} $$
$$-\frac {6a\,(a\cos\theta-1)^3\,\tanh^-1 \left( \frac{(a+1)\tan(\theta/2)}{\sqrt{a^2-1}} \right) } {(2(a^2-1)^{5/2}\,(a\cos\theta-1)^3} $$ $$$$ $$$$
$$I_2 \, =\, \int\frac{\cos \theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^3}\,\mathrm{d}\theta \, =\, $$ $$constant2 - \frac {2a^2\sin\theta-sin\theta} {2(a^2-1)^2(a\cos\theta-1)} -\frac {\sin\theta} {2(a^2-1)(a\cos\theta-1)^2} $$
$$ -\frac {3a\tanh^-1\left(\frac{(a+1)\tan(\theta/2)}{\sqrt{a^2-1}}\right)} {(a^2-1)^{5/2}} $$ Note that the final terms of each expression are equivalent to each other. This could be useful. For example we can define a difference function $f_3 = f_1-f_2$ whose indefinite integral $I_3 = I_1-I_2$ will exclude the common awkward third term.
Let us assume that $f_3$ is continuously integrable over the range $0,2\pi$ (we cannot be sure by inspection alone, but it can be shown, see my answer below). Then, if $D_1=D_2$ over the range $0,2\pi$ then $D_1-D_2=0$ and so $D_3$ (=$\int_0^{2\pi}f_3\,d\theta$) should have value zero. This is expanded on in my answer below.