(a) $(1,2,4)(4,3,5)(2,4)(1,2,4)^{-1}$
In the solution for this question, my professor has the product of disjoint cycles written as (1,3,5)(4,1). How would this make sense when disjoint cycles are not allowed to have repeat elements within cycles, in this case, the number 1?
I ended up with $P=\begin{bmatrix}1&2&3&4&5&6 \\ 4&2&5&3&1&6\\ \end{bmatrix}$ which can be expressed as one cycle = (5 1 4 3)
(b) (1,3,4,5,2)(1,2)(1,3,5)(2,5,4,3,1)
For part (b), he first inversed the last permutation so this becomes $(1,3,4,5,2)(1,2)(1,3,5)(1,3,4,5,2)^{-1}$ then wrote the product of disjoint cycles as (3,1)(3,4,2). Is there a reason why he inversed the last permutation (2,5,4,3,1) into $(1,3,4,5,2)^{-1}$ before calculating the product?
I would greatly appreciate any help with understanding the reasoning behind his answers and how to deal with inverse permutations when performing these operations.