Let $(B_t)$ be a Brownian motion and set $X_t = \int_0^t B_s^2 dB_s$. Is $X_t$ martingale?
My idea is to rewrite $X_t$ in terms of Ito's Formula $(f(x) = \frac{1}{3}x^3)$
$X_t = \int_0^t B_s^2 dB_s = 2 \int_0^t B_s d \langle B \rangle_s - \frac{1}{3} B_t^3$
and since $-f$ for $x \geq 0$ is a concave function, $- \frac{1}{3} B_s^3 $ is a supermartingale, thus a martingale. So for $X_t$ to be a martingale, $\int_0^t B_t^2 dB_s$ needs to be martingale. But since it is locally of bounded variation, if we assume it is a martingale it is constant in t, which can not be true (a brownian motion is not equal to zero for all t).