Reading the consistency section of the Peano Axioms wikipedia page, I came across this sentence:
The vast majority of contemporary mathematicians believe that Peano's axioms are consistent, relying either on intuition or the acceptance of a consistency proof such as Gentzen's proof.
If Gentzen's proof shows the consistency of PA, then what is there to "accept"? Is the point that some mathematicians might not accept that Gentzen's proof shows the consistency of PA because we don't know whether the system Gentzen uses in his proof is consistent?