Proof/Counterexample: If $z$ is a complex number and $z\notin \mathbb Q$, then $\mathbb Q(z)=\mathbb Q(z^3,z^5)$.
First, $\mathbb Q(z)\subseteq \mathbb Q(z^3,z^5)$ would be trivial, right? Then we are left with showing $\mathbb Q(z)\supseteq \mathbb Q(z^3,z^5)$.
If $z\notin \mathbb Q$, then for $z=a+bi$ where $a,b\in \mathbb Q$, $b\ne 0$.
$a+bi=(a+bi)^3$
$a+bi=a^3+3a^2bi-3b^2a-b^3i$
$a+bi=(a^3-3b^2a)+(3a^2b-b^3)i$
Then because $a,b\in \mathbb Q$, $(a^3-3b^2a)+(3a^2b-b^3)i$ is contained in $\mathbb Q(z)$. Thus, $\mathbb Q(z)\supseteq \mathbb Q(z^3,z^5)$?
Does it work like this, or am I way off base with this attempt?