The intuitive definition for $\lim\limits_{x \to a} f(x) = L$ is the value of $f ( x )$ can be made arbitrarily close to $L$ by making $x$ sufficiently close, but not equal to, $a$ . I can easily understand this ,but for the (ε, δ)-definition of limit:For every real ε > 0, there exists a real δ > 0 such that for all real x, 0 < | x − a | < δ implies | f(x) − L | < ε. Oh, god, I cannot understand it completely.
As it is the formal definition of limit, I think it should be precise but somewhat should include the mean of the above intuitive definition, so as for "$f ( x )$ can be made arbitrarily close to $L$" in the intuitive definition correspond to “For every real ε > 0,| f(x) − L | < ε” in the formal definition, it's fine! but does “making $x$ sufficiently close, but not equal to, $a$ .” correspond to “there exists a real δ > 0 such that for all real x, 0 < | x − a | < δ” ? This is the point I cannot understand, because I am not sure if “there exists a real δ > 0 such that for all real x, 0 < | x − a | < δ” shows "x close enough, but not equal, to $a$".
The other question is: does the biggest δ also get smaller as ε is getting smaller? Why? (Exclude the case when f(x) is a constant function.)
Why do we need the formal definition of a limit? Does the intuitive definition have some flaw?
P.S. Thank you everyone, but I must declare I only have some basic knowledge of limit, I only started to learn calculus a few days ago.