Exercise 6H on pp 45-46 of Herrlich & Strecker's Category theory (1979, 2d ed.) states (my emphasis):
(a) Show that if $K$ is a subgroup of the (finite) group $H$, then there exists a (finite) group $G$ and group homomorphisms $f_1, f_2:H\to G$ such that $$K = \{h\in H | f_1(h\,) = f_2(h\,)\}$$
[$\cdots$ lengthy hint on how to construct $(G, f_1, f_2)$ omitted $\cdots$]
(b) Use part (a) to show that the epimorphims in Grp are precisely the surjective homomorphisms; likewise in the category of finite groups.
My question is:
why do H&S take the trouble of making a special case out of the category of finite groups?
The emphasized text in the quoted exercise, especially the last phrase of part (b), suggest that the proof of the "epic $\Leftrightarrow$ surjective" equivalence for the category Grp somehow does not hold for the category of finite groups. How could this be? After all, finite groups are groups too, so any theorem that is proved for groups in general would necessarily hold for finite groups as well. It would have made sense if the proof for the case of finite groups did not apply for groups in general, but not the other way around.
(FWIW, after doing parts (a) and (b) for Grp, I don't see any step in the argument that depends on the cardinality of the groups involved. In particular, this is the case for the proposed construction given in the omitted hint.)