Let random variable $X$ be the number of actives. Then if we use your procedure, we want
$$1-\left(\Pr(X=0)+\Pr(X=1)+\cdots+\Pr(X=10)\right).\tag{1}$$
Note this is a little different from yours, you had left out the possibility $X=0$.
That correction, however, does not account for the error, so you must have computed the probabilities incorrectly. Note that
$$\Pr(X=k)=\binom{35}{k}(0.1)^k (0.9)^{35-k}.$$
We have to be very very careful in the computation. The sum we are computing in (1) is very close to $1$, so roundoff error can be catastrophic.
Another way: I can see why you wanted to use (1), it looks like a shorter computation. However, in this situation, it is better to compute
$$\Pr(X=11)+\Pr(X=12)+\cdots+\Pr(X=35)\tag{2}$$
directly.
That's because the mean number of actives is $3.5$, so the first number in the sum (2) is small, and pretty quickly we are adding virtually nothing, so we can truncate the computation early. Also, the computation via (2) is numerically stable, while using (1) definitely is not.
Remarks: $1.$ Nowadays, many programs, and even some calculators, will compute binomial probabilities and their sums. Wolfram Alpha (free) will do it.
$2.$ If you want to use an approximate procedure, I would recommend the Poisson approximation. So the required probability is not far from
$$\sum_{11}^{35} e^{-3.5} \frac{(3.5)^n}{n!}.$$
Only the first few terms really matter.