This is a problem which emerged from trying to prove that a sequence of random variables on $[0,1]$ does not converge almost surely to $0$.
In the process of trying to prove the above, I encountered the infinite sequence constructed as follows.
- $x_1 = 1$
- $x_2 = 1 - \frac{1}{2} - \lfloor (1 - \frac{1}{2}) \rfloor = \frac{1}{2}$, $\qquad \qquad$ i.e. the fractional part of $(1 - \frac{1}{2})$
- $x_3 = 1 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{3} - \lfloor (1 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{3}) \rfloor = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} $, $\qquad$ i.e. the fractional part of $(1 - \frac{1}{2} - \frac{2}{3})$
- $\vdots$
- $x_n = 1 - \sum_{i=2}^n \frac{n-1}{n} - \lfloor (1 - \sum_{i=2}^n \frac{n-1}{n}) \rfloor$, $\qquad$ i.e. the fractional part of $(1 - \sum_{i=2}^n \frac{n-1}{n})$
- $\vdots$
I would like to know whether this sequence is dense in $[0,1]$. I have a strong intuition that it is, but I have no idea how to tackle the proof. Any idea on how I could prove or disprove it?