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Prove without using induction that the following formula:$$\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k\binom{n}{k}=0$$ is valid for every $n\ge1$.

Progress

For each odd $n$ we can use the identity:$$\binom{n}{k}=\binom{n}{n-k}$$ In fact all terms equidistant from the end points are opposite. My question is: if $n$ is even how can we prove it?

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marked as duplicate by lab bhattacharjee calculus Aug 24 '14 at 16:09

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

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Set $a=1,b=-1$ in the Binomial Expansion formula for non-negative intger $n$ $$(a+b)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n\binom nk a^{n-k}b^k$$

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