I was going through this wikipedia article on standard error. I could not understand the crucial step here. It goes like this:
This formula may be derived from what we know about the variance of a sum of independent random variables.
If $X_1, X_2 , \ldots, X_n$ are n independent observations from a population that has a mean $\mu$ and standard deviation $\sigma$ , then the variance of the total
$T = (X_1 + X_2 + \cdots + X_n)$ is $n\sigma^2$. Understood.
The variance of T/n must be $\frac{1}{n^2}n\sigma^2=\frac{\sigma^2}{n}$. Not understood.
And the standard deviation of T/n must be $\sigma/{\sqrt{n}}$ . Of course, T/n is the sample mean $\bar{x}$ .
I went to some basics:
$\displaystyle Var(X)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}({x_i-\mu})^2$
$\displaystyle Var(X)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}({x_i^2+\mu^2-2x_i\mu})$
$\displaystyle Var(X)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i^2+\mu^2-\frac{2}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i\mu$
As Sample mean is an unbiased estimate of population mean, we get
$\displaystyle Var(X)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i^2-\mu^2$
$\displaystyle Var(X)=E(X^2)-(E(X))^2$
Nothing useful found from this.
Why is there a $1/n^2$ in that step to get variance ?