The proof is the same as in the one-variable case.
Suppose $f,g$ both converge at a point $(S_1,S_2)$ with $S_1,S_2\neq 0$ (if convergence requires $S_2=0$ then you are in a one-variable case). Let $C$ be such that $|a_\alpha.S^\alpha|,|b_\alpha.S^\alpha| \leq C$ for all $\alpha$ (this exists by convergence).
Now let $0<r<1$ and let $T_i=r|S_i|$. We show that the series for $fg$ converges uniformly absolutely in $[-T_1,T_1]\times[-T_2,T_2]$.
For this, consider the series
$$(*)\quad\sum_{\alpha,\beta} a_\alpha b_\beta \theta^\alpha \theta^\beta.$$
Putting absolute values we get the series
$$\sum_{\alpha,\beta} |a_\alpha b_\beta \theta^\alpha \theta^\beta| \leq \sum_{\alpha,\beta} |a_\alpha S^\alpha||b_\beta S^\beta|r^{|\alpha+\beta|}$$
$$\leq C^2 \sum_{\alpha,\beta} r^{|\alpha+\beta|} = C^2 \left(\sum_{n=0}^\infty r^n\right)^4 = \frac{C^2}{(1-r)^4}.$$
It follows that the series $(*)$ converges absolutely and uniformly in the stated domain. To see that it converges to $fg$ note that
$$\left(\sum_{|\alpha|\leq N}a_\alpha \theta^\alpha\right)
\left(\sum_{|\beta|\leq N}b_\beta \theta^\beta\right) $$
is a sequence of partial sums of $(*)$ which exhausts all summands. Now take $N\to\infty$. On the one hand you get $fg$ and on the other hand the sum of $(*)$.
Finally, given that the series $(*)$ converges absolutely to $fg$, we can arbitrarily reorder it without changing either the fact of convergence or the value of the sum. In particular, we can order the terms by the value of $\alpha+\beta$. Then the partial sums of your $\sum_\alpha c_\gamma \theta^\gamma$ are a subsequence of the partial sums of the rearrangement, so again they converge and to the same value.