I wish to prove that $\vdash \exists x (x=c)$ for each term $c$. It seems quite obvious that this would be the case, for $c$ is such an $x$, but creating a formal proof of this is escaping me.
$(c=c)$ is an axiom and by generalization we have $\forall x (c=c)$. From this point I can't see how to justify replacing the first $c$ with an $x$ nor to add appropriate negations to make this into $\neg \forall x \neg (x=c)$.
The context is that I'm trying to prove the Completeness Theorem using the Henkin-style proof, so for that reason using the Completeness Theorem is not an option, though it would admittedly make it a no-brainer.
The specific formal system I'm working with is
- $(\alpha\rightarrow \alpha)$
- $(\beta\rightarrow (\alpha\rightarrow \beta))$
- $((\alpha\rightarrow \beta)\rightarrow ((\alpha\rightarrow (\beta\rightarrow \gamma))\rightarrow (\alpha\rightarrow \gamma)))$
- $((\alpha\rightarrow \bot) \rightarrow (\alpha\rightarrow \beta))$
- $(((\alpha\rightarrow \bot)\rightarrow \bot)\rightarrow \alpha)$
- $(\forall x (\varphi\rightarrow \psi) \rightarrow (\varphi\rightarrow \forall x \psi))$ whenever $\varphi$ and $\psi$ are wffs, $x$ is a variable, and $x$ is not free in $\varphi$
- $\forall x \varphi(x)\rightarrow \varphi(y)$ whenever $\varphi(x)$ is a wff with free variable $x$, $y$ is a variable or constant, and no free occurence of $x$ in $\varphi(x)$ is within the scope of a $\forall y$
- $(t=t)$ whenever $t$ is a term
- $((x=y)\rightarrow (\varphi \rightarrow \psi))$ whenever $x$ and $y$ are variables or constants, $\varphi$ and $\psi$ are wffs, and $\psi$ is obtained by substituting $y$ for some free occurrences of $x$ in $\varphi$.
Our rules of inference include Modus Ponens: $\{\alpha\rightarrow \beta,\alpha\}\vdash \beta$, and Generalization: $\{\varphi\}\vdash \forall x \varphi$.