I'm trying to compute the following limit:
$\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} \int_{0}^{\infty} (1+\frac{x}{n})^{(-n)} \sin(x/n) dx$
Clearly the integrand converges to 0 pointwise so the trick is to find the dominating function. So for simplicity let ${f_{n}}$ denote the sequence of functions of the integrand: it is not hard to see that $|f_{n}| \leq (1+x/3)^{-3}x$ for all $n\geq 3$ and the latter function is integrable on $(0,\infty)$. But doesn't Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem requires to bound it for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$? What happens if we can't obtain a dominating function for $n=1$ or $n=2$ ? Can you please clarify this? I have read in a book that you can drop some terms, say $n=1,2,3$ and the bound the rest , but why is this possible? doesn't this violates the hypothesis of Lebesgue's theorem?