The following is a proposition about product sigma algebra from Folland's Real Analysis:
Proposition. If $A$ is countable, then $\otimes_{\alpha\in A}M_{\alpha}$ is is the $\sigma$-algebra generated by $\{\Pi_{\alpha\in A}E_\alpha:E_\alpha\in M_\alpha\}$.
Proof. If $E_{\alpha}\in M_{\alpha}$, then $\pi_\alpha^{-1}(E_\alpha)=\Pi_{\beta\in A}E_\beta$ where $E_\beta=X_\beta$ for $\beta\not=\alpha$; on the other hand, $\Pi_{\alpha\in A}E_\alpha=\cap_{\alpha\in A}\pi^{-1}_\alpha(E_\alpha)$. The result therefore follows from Lemma 1.1.
[Added]Lemma 1.1: If $\mathcal{E}\subset M(\mathcal{F})$ then $M(\mathcal{E})\subset M(\mathcal{F})$ where $M(\mathcal{E})$ denotes the sigma algebra generated by $\mathcal{E}$.
Where is the assumption "$A$ is countable" used in the proof?