In a quiz the following question was asked :
""Let x and y be two random numbers between 0 and 1. What is the probability that $\frac{x}{y}$ rounds to an even number?""
My friend calculated the answer to be $$\frac{5}{4}-\frac{\pi}{4}$$
which is roughly equal to 46 percent. I don't know whether his answer is definitely correct but could not find any flaws in his reasoning or calculation. So my question arises as follows:
Since x/y has values ranging from $0$ to infinity, why isn't the probability of rounding x/y to an even or odd number equal.
$\mathbf{EDIT:}$My friend used probability spaces in his answer. He plotted the two numbers x and y on a graph with both x and y varying from $0$ to $1$. This gives us a unit square. Then he calculated the area of the regions of the square which sastisfied the condition that x/y rounds to an even number. This gave him an infinite number of triangles with decreasing area. He applied summation on the areas of the triangles to get the answer.