Part of Asaf Karagila's brilliant answer to one of my other questions puzzles me a lot. Namely, I find it hard to understand how there can be a model for ZFC with uncountably many integers. My reasons for being puzzled are entirely based on intuition and possibly cannot be formalised:
I have always thought that it is when we start to approach uncountable structures like the real numbers that mysteries and paradoxes start to appear. I had this idea that as long as we stayed with the countable number structures ($\Bbb N, \Bbb Z, \Bbb Q,\ldots$), there would be a kind of "isomorphism" between these structures across models. For instance, I would expect the prime numbers in one model to be prime numbers of any other model as well. The reason I would think this is that integers are, in a way, more natural than set theory itself. If $S\colon\Bbb N\to\Bbb N$ denotes the successor function from Peano's axioms, then the definition of the number $n$ is $n = S^n(0)$; but this definition is, in a way, circular, as the notation shows. In order to define $n$ in set theory, we need to know what we mean by "applying $S$ $n$ times". This can of course be considered a syntactical issue, like how parantheses are interpreted in logic; but just like the rules of logic, this has to be given in informal language. Rather, the purpose of constructing the natural numbers in set theory is to show that our theory is strong enough to support Peano arithmetic.
But obviously, as Asaf Karagila's answer shows, I'm wrong. But where am I wrong,m and how much am I wrong?