What I've got so far is this:
Base case: n = 3
then $3 *2 * 1 = 6$ and $3^3 = 27$ $\therefore 6 < 27, 3! < 3^3$
So the base case is true.
So if we assume $n! < n^n$ (n > 2)
$(n + 1)! = (n + 1) * n!$
$(n + 1)n! < (n+1)n^n$ # since $n! <n*n$ (can I do this?)
Here is where I am stuck. I know $n^n < (n+1)^n$ where n > 2 I don't know how to prove this step by induction. However if I were to assume this:
$(n+1)n^n < (n+1)(n+1)^n$
$(n+1)n^n < (n+1)^{n+1}$
Then finally, because of all those inequalities,
$(n + 1)! < (n+1)^{n + 1}$
Does this look correct? Can I assume $n^n < (n+1)^n$? If not, how would I prove it, preferably by induction?