Consider Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb{R}$ and let $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ be differentiable. Does $f$ necessarily preserve measure zero sets? Does $f$ necessarily preserve measurable sets?
Note that if $f$ is $C^1$ then $f$ preserves measure zero sets since $C^1$ functions are locally Lipschitz. Therefore $C^1$ functions also preserve measurable sets since a measurable set is the union of an $F_\sigma$ set and an measure zero set, and continuous functions preserve $F_\sigma$ sets. More generally if $f$ is absolutely continuous on each interval then $f$ preserves both measure zero sets and measurable sets.
However, I'm not sure about the differentiable case. I would guess that the answer to both questions is no. I'm interested in a counter example or proof in each case.