The category $\mathbf{Grp}$ of groups has a zero object, namely the trivial group $1$. Since $\mathbf{Grp}$ is furthermore complete, we have the notion of a kernel of a group homomorphism. The kernel of a homomorphism $G\xrightarrow{\ f\ }H$ is a monomorphism $\operatorname{Ker}f\xrightarrow{\ker f}G$, so $\operatorname{Ker}f$ can be interpreted as a subgroup of $G$ with underlying set a subset of $G$. Namely, $\operatorname{Ker}f=\{x\in G\mid fx=1\}$.
In the category $\mathbf{Ring}$ of rings, we don't have a zero object and thus there is no natural definition of a kernel. Anyway, we define the kernel of a ring homomorphism $R\xrightarrow{\ f\ }S$ as the set $\operatorname{Ker}f=\{x\in R\mid fx=0\}$, analogous to the case of (additive) groups. However, it is not clear to me, what kind of object this is, i.e. to which category it belongs.
It seems wrong to think of it as a set, because it does have extra structure, e.g. as an (abelian) group. So maybe one should define the kernel of a ring homomorphism as an abelian group (the kernel of the underlying group homomorphism). But also this seems a little arbitrary, because one can easily define Rings and kernels of such without ever coming across abelian groups. Also, this doesn't give rise to a one-to-one correspondence, since not every kernel of a homomorphism of underlying abelian groups gives rise to a kernel of a ring homomorphism.
So, is it possible to define a kernel of a ring homomorphism without "leaving" the category of rings?
The same problem comes with all ideals. Is an ideal a set? A group? An abelian group? A module? A non-unitary ring? If one indeed defines left-ideals of $R$ as submodules of $R$, viewed as a left-module over itself, a right-ideal as a left-ideal of $R^{\operatorname{op}}$ and a two-sided ideal as a left-and-right ideal, how does this intuitively give rise to the fact that
two-sided-ideal$\iff$kernel of underlying group homomorphism of some ring homomorphism?
I hope you can understand the trouble I have.