Given the function: $f(x) = \sqrt[3]{x} \cdot \sqrt[5]{x-1}$, Wolfram claims the domain is $x\ge1$, the same of the $\sqrt[5]{x-1}$ part.
My question is: why isn't the domain $\mathbb{R}$? I've always considered the domain of odd roots to be $\mathbb{R}$, or ignored the root altogether when calculating the domain. The sources I checked confirmed that it is correct.
In this case, why must $x$ be $\ge0$ if, say, $\sqrt[5]{-2}$ exists?
I feel like I'm missing out something very basic here... Thanks in advance for the help.