I was asked to prove an inequality: For any $n$ positive numbers $\{a_i\}$ with $a_{1}a_{2}\cdots a_{n} = 1$ and $m \geq n-1$ be a non-negative integer, $a_1^m + a_2^m + \cdots + a_n^m \geq \frac{1}{a_1} + \frac{1}{a_2} + \cdots + \frac{1}{a_n}$
After several attempts, I think I had to use induction on both $m$ and $n$. In particular, I fix an $n$ and claim that the inequality holds for every $m$, and use induction on $n$.
The case where $n = 2$ could be done by rewriting the inequality as $a_1^2 + a_2^2 \geq a_1 + a_2$ and assume that $a_1 \leq 1 \leq a_2$.
In the inductive step, given $a_1^k + a_2^k \geq a_1 + a_2$ , by writing $a_1^{k+1} + a_2^{k+1} = (a_1^{k} + a_2^{k})(a_1 + a_2) - a_1^{k}a_2^{k} (a_1 + a_2)$, the result follows.
However, this method seems to fail for $n>2$, as the right-hand side of the inequality becomes more complicated. Should I try not to prove it by induction?