I need help with the definition of "within 1":
If $x = 8$ and $y = 7$, then $x$ is "within 1" of $y$.
If $x = 8$ and $y = 9$, then $x$ is "within 1" of $y$.
If $x = 8$ and $y = 8$, is $x$ still "within 1" of $y$?
It's my understanding that this would still be true, but I'm being asked for something to back up my assumption, so I guess I'm looking for a second opinion.