If I am not mistaken more is actually true. Since for $p>1$ the function $$f(x)=x^p$$ is convex, then by the midpoint inequality one has $$f\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)\leq \frac{f(x)+f(y)}{2}.$$ This translates immediately in $$(x+y)^p\leq 2^{p-1}(x^p+y^p),$$ which in turn imply your thesis. The case left is then $p=1$ but in this case the result is trivial.
Note that one can say more even in the case $0\leq p<1$. Indeed $\forall t\in [0,+\infty)$ one gets $$(1+t)^p\leq 1+t^p.$$ To prove the result define $$k(t)=(1+t)^p-t^p.$$ Then $\forall t\in (0,+\infty)$, we have $$k'(t)=p[(t+1)^{p-1}-t^{p-1}]<0,$$ and $$\lim_{t\to 0}\:k(t)=1,$$ therefore the claim follows. Now set $$t=\frac{x}{y}$$ to conclude $$(x+y)^p\leq x^p+y^p.$$
EDIT: According to Martin Sleziak's comment, this imply in turn that the function $$f(x)=x^p$$ is subadditive for $p<1$.
To collect all the informations all at once, one usually says that $\forall p\in [0,+\infty)$ it is true that $$(x+y)^p\leq \max(1,2^{p-1})(x^p+y^p).$$