What is the value of the integral$\int_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{1-\cos t}{t} \, e^{-t} \, \mathrm{d}t$? I have a question about evaluating

$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1-\cos t}{t}  \, e^{-t} \, \mathrm{d} t$$


Since $\lim_{t \to 0} \frac{1-\cos(t)}{t}  =0$, we know that the integrand is integrable near $t=0$.
But when evaluating the integral, how do you deal with the $t$ in the denominator of the integrand?
 A: Consider the integral $$\int_0^\infty \frac{1-\cos t}{t} e^{-st} dt. $$
If we define $f(t)=1-\cos t$, this integral is the Laplace transform of $f(t)/t$. Moreover, we have the following identity for Laplace transforms:
$$\mathcal{L} \left\{ \frac{f(t)}{t} \right\}(s)=\int_s^\infty F(\sigma)d \sigma $$
where $F(\sigma)$ is the Laplace transform of $f(t)$, which in our case is known to be $$F(\sigma)=\frac{1}{\sigma}-\frac{\sigma}{\sigma^2+1}. $$ Thus we have $$\int_0^\infty \frac{1-\cos t}{t} e^{-st}=\int_s^\infty \left( \frac{1}{\sigma}-\frac{\sigma}{\sigma^2+1} \right) d \sigma= \log \sigma-\frac{1}{2} \log (\sigma^2+1) \big]^{\sigma=\infty}_{\sigma=s} .$$
Plugging in $s=1$ gives $$\int_0^\infty \frac{1-\cos t}{t} e^{-t} dt=\frac{1}{2} \log 2- \log 1=\frac{1}{2} \log 2 .$$
A: Another approach
Consider Laplace transform
$$
\mathcal{L}\left[f(t)\right]=F(s)=\int_0^\infty f(t)\ e^{-st}\ dt
$$
and property of the unilateral Laplace transform
$$
\mathcal{L}\left[\frac{f(t)}{t}\right]=\int_s^\infty F(\omega)\ d\omega,
$$
where $F(\omega)$ is Laplace transform of $f(t)$. We choose $f(t)=(1-\cos at)$ and it is easy to show that
$$
\mathcal{L}\left[1-\cos at\right]=F(s)=\int_0^\infty (1-\cos at)\ e^{-st}\ dt=\frac{a^2}{s(s^2+a^2)},
$$
then
$$\eqalign
{
\mathcal{L}\left[\frac{1-\cos at}{t}\right]&=\int_1^\infty \frac{a^2}{s(s^2+a^2)}\ ds\\
&=\int_1^\infty \left[\frac{1}{s}-\frac{s}{s^2+a^2}\right]\ ds\\
&=\left.\frac12\left[\ln s^2-\ln(s^2+a^2)\right]\right|_1^\infty\\
&=\left.\frac12\ln\left(\frac{s^2}{s^2+a^2}\right)\right|_1^\infty\\
&=\frac12\ln\left(1+a^2\right).
}
$$
Taking $a=1$ yields
$$
\int_0^\infty \left[\frac{1-\cos t}{t}\right]\ e^{-t}\ dt=\large\color{blue}{\frac{\ln 2}{2}}.
$$
A: Here's a solution using Frullani's integral.
$$\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1-\cos t}{t}e^{-t}\,dt=\Re\left(\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1-e^{it}}{t}e^{-t}\,dt\right)=\Re\left(\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-t}-e^{-(1-i)t}}{t}\,dt\right)$$
$$=\Re\left(\ln\left(\frac{1-i}{1}\right)\right)=\Re\left(\ln\left(\sqrt{2}e^{i(-\pi/4+2k\pi)}\right)\right)=\boxed{\dfrac{\ln 2}{2}}$$
A: $\newcommand{\+}{^{\dagger}}
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$\ds{\int_{0}^{\infty}{1 - \cos\pars{t} \over t} \expo{-t}\,\dd t =\ {\large ?}}$

\begin{align}
&\color{#44f}{\large\int_{0}^{\infty}{1 - \cos\pars{t} \over t} \expo{-t}\,\dd t}
=\Re\int_{0}^{\infty}\bracks{%
\expo{-t} - \expo{-\pars{1 + \ic}t}}\int_{0}^{\infty}\expo{-t\xi}\,\dd\xi\,\dd t
\\[3mm]&=\Re\int_{0}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty}\bracks{%
\expo{-\pars{1 + \xi}t} - \expo{-\pars{\xi + 1 + \ic}t}}\,\dd t\,\dd\xi
=\Re\int_{0}^{\infty}\bracks{{1 \over \xi + 1} - {1 \over \xi + 1 + \ic}}\,\dd\xi
\\[3mm]&=\Re\ln\pars{1 + \ic} = \color{#44f}{\large\half\,\ln\pars{2}}
\end{align}

A: Consider
$$\mathcal{I}(a)=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{1-\cos at}{t}e^{-t}dt.$$
Differentiating w.r.t. $a$, we find
$$\mathcal{I}'(a)=\int_0^{\infty}\sin at\;e^{-t}dt=\frac{a}{1+a^2}.$$
Now integrating back and using that $\mathcal{I}(0)=0$ yields
$$\mathcal{I}(a)=\int_0^a\frac{a\,da}{1+a^2}=\frac12\ln\left(1+a^2\right).$$
It remains to set $a=1$.
A: Assume that $a>1$.
Using the Maclaurin series of the cosine function,  we get
$$\begin{align} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1-\cos t}{t} \, e^{-at} \, dt &= -\int_{0}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}t^{2n}}{(2n)!} \frac{e^{-at}}{t} \, dt  \\ &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{(2n)!} \int_{0}^{\infty}t^{2n-1}e^{-at} \, dt \\ &=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{(2n)!} \frac{(2n-1)!}{a^{2n}} \\ &= \frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n} \left( \frac{1}{a^{2}} \right)^{n} \\ &=\frac{1}{2} \,\ln \left(1+ \frac{1}{a^{2}} \right) \, ,  \end{align}$$ where interchanging the order of summation and integration is justified by Fubini's theorem.
Letting $a \to 1^{+}$, we get $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1-\cos t}{t} \, e^{-t} \, dt = \frac{\ln 2}{2}. $$
(See this question about justification for moving the limit inside the integral.)
