Assume $f(x_{1},x_{2})$ is a real-valued continuously differentiable function, and assume it holds that
$x_2D_{1}f(x_1,x_2) - x_1D_2f(x_1,x_2) = 0$ where $D_1$ is the partial derivative with respect to $x_1$, similar for $D_2$.
Show there exists a function $\phi:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$, $\phi$ continuously differentiable, such that $f(x_1,x_2) = \phi(x_1^{2} + x_2^2)$.
So far I have thought that assuming $\phi$ would exist it must satisfy $2x_1x_2D_1\phi - 2x_1x_2D_2\phi = 0$ and thus this leads to $D_1\phi = D_2\phi$, however I'm not sure if we can assume that $\phi$ exists as that is what the question asks us to prove... really not sure on how to go about it at all!