In the following paper and in order to prove the Barnes integral
$$\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int^{i\infty}_{-i\infty}\frac{\Gamma(a+s)\Gamma(b+s)\Gamma(-s)}{\Gamma(c+s)}(-z)^s\,ds=\frac{\Gamma(a)\Gamma(b)}{\Gamma(c)}{}_2F_1(a,b;c;z)$$
The author uses the asymptotic approximation
$$\frac{\Gamma(a+s)\Gamma(b+s)}{\Gamma(c+s)\Gamma(1+s)}\cdot \frac{\pi }{\sin(\pi s)}(-z)^s\sim \frac{\pi(-z)^s}{\sin(\pi s)}\text{exp} \left[\left(a+b-c-1 \right) \log(s)\right]$$
But I have no idea how to conclude that.