$f_n(x):=nx(1-x)^n$ Determine whether the sequence $(f_n)$ converges uniformly on $[0,1]$ I am having a bit of trouble on this revision question.
To determine pointwise convergence: $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} = nx(1-x)^n $. For $x=0, x=1$, it's clear that the limit is $0$. How can I determine the limit for $0 \le x \le 1$? (My limit finding skills are rusty). I'm quite sure it is $0$ as well, but how do I go about showing this properly?
Supposing this is true, then to determine uniform convergence, let $d_n(x):= |f_n(x)-f(x)|= nx(1-x)^n - 0$
Then $$ d_n'(x)= n(1-x)^n - n^2(1-x)x = 0$$ if $x=1$. So the maximum of $f_n(x)$ occurs at $x=1$. It follows that:
$$0 \le d_n(x)= |f_n(x)-f(x)|< d_n(1) = 0$$ So $(f_n)$ converges uniformly 
on $[0,1]$. Would this be correct?
Thanks for the help in advance!
 A: The plan is good, the execution isn't.
If you maximize $f_n(x)$ for fixed $n$ as a function of $x$ you get $x=1/(n+1)$.  Uniform convergence then doesn't hold because
$$\sup_x f_n(x) = \frac{n}{n+1} \Bigl( 1 - \frac{1}{n+1}\Bigr)^n \to \frac{1}{e},$$
as $n\to\infty$.
A: You are correct in stating that the pointwise limit is zero.
Your differentiation, however, was incorrect.  We have
$$
d_n'(x)= n(1-x)^n - n^2(1-x)^{n-1}x = 0 \implies\\
n(1-x)^{n-1}((1-x) - nx) = 0 \implies\\
1 - (n+1)x = 0 \implies\\
x = \frac 1{n+1}
$$
So, the maximum difference is 
$$
n \cdot \frac{1}{n+1} \cdot \left( 1 - \frac{1}{n+1} \right)^n \not \to 0
$$
Which, in fact, shows that we do not have uniform convergence.
A: To answer your first question about pointwise convergence for $0<x<1$, note that for a fixed value of $x$ there exists $y>0$ such that
$$(1-x) = \frac{1}{1+y}.$$
Hence,
$$0<nx(1-x)^n = \frac{nx}{(1+y)^n}.$$
Applying the binomial theorem we see that
$$(1+y)^n = 1 + ny + \frac{n(n-1)}{2}y^2 + \ ... \ >\frac{n(n-1)}{2}y^2,$$
and
$$0<nx(1-x)^n < \frac{2x}{(n-1)y^2}.$$
The RHS of the above inequality can be made smaller than any $\epsilon>0$ for fixed values of x and y by choosing a sufficiently large value of $n$.  
In particular, let $N$ be an integer such that
$$N > 1+\frac{2x}{\epsilon y^2}.$$
Then for all $n \geq N$ we have
$$0<nx(1-x)^n < \epsilon,$$
and the pointwise limit of the sequence is $0$. 
A: Observe that $$\sup_{x \in [0,1]} |f_n(x)-f(x)| \geq \left|f_n \left(\frac{1}{n} \right) -f\left( \frac{1}{n} \right) \right|=\left(1-\frac{1}{n} \right)^n \to \frac{1}{e}$$
as $n \to \infty$ .So that we can't have $\lim_{n \to \infty} \sup_{x \in [0,1]} |f_n(x)-f(x)|=0$. i.e. there is no uniform convergence.
