Setting: Let $f: \mathbb{\hat{C}}\rightarrow \mathbb{\hat{C}}$ be a meromorphic function. Let $\{p_k\}$ denote the set of poles of $f$ inside $\mathbb{\hat{C}}$.
Question: Why must $\{p_k\}$ be a finite set?
Attempt:
I know only how to reason that $\{p_k\}$ is a countable set. To see this, consider that the poles $p_k$ of $f$ are isolated by definition. Hence for each $p_k$ there is associated a neighborhood $N_{p_k}$ about $p_k$ s.t. there are no poles inside $N_{p_k}$. Then we have that
$$ j \ne k \implies N_{p_k} \cap N_{p_j} = \emptyset $$
so that if $\{p_k\}$ were uncountable, we would have that $\bigcup N_{p_k} \subsetneq \mathbb{\hat{C}}$ which is absurd (an uncountable number of neighborhoods of $\mathbb{\hat{C}}$ must cover $\mathbb{\hat{C}}$).
So how do I show that $\{p_k\}$ is finite?