The following false "proof" is attributed to Thomas Clausen in 1827, and was stated on page 79 of Nahin's An Imaginary Tale.
$e^{i2\pi n}=1$ for all integers $n$. So
\begin{align*} ee^{i2\pi n}=e&=e^{1+i2\pi n}\\ &=\left(e^{1+i2\pi n}\right)^{1+i2\pi n}\\ &=e^{(1+i2\pi n)^2}=e^{1+i4\pi n-4\pi^2n^2}\\ &=e^{1+i4\pi n}e^{-4\pi^2n^2} \end{align*} But $e^{1+i4\pi n}=e$, therefore $e^{-4\pi^2n^2}=1$. But that last equation is only true for $n=0$. We started with a statement true for all integers $n$, and through a series of (apparently) valid steps ended with a statement true only for $0$. Therefore all integers are $0$. Where is the mistake?