The universal coefficient theorem for cohomology reads:
$$0 \to Ext(H_{n-1}(C), R) \to H^n(C;R) \to Hom(H_n(C), R) \to 0,$$
where $C$ is a chain complex of free abelian groups and $R$ is a ring.
It is understood that the homology groups $H_i(C)$ are taken with respect to $\mathbb{Z}$ coefficients.
My question: what happens if you consider instead homology groups with $R$ coefficients? After trying some examples, it seems that you obtain the very same cohomology groups from the theorem, even though $Ext$ and $Hom$ may both change. However, I don't know if this is true in general.