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I'm currently working on a system that uses a logarithmic and a Schwarz-Christoffel transformation to calculate the resistance of a specific area. With resistance I mean the resistance that would apply to that area if it were between two equipotential irregular plates (which are defined by their vertices). In my case it is the magnetic reluctance but it is analogous to electrical resistance.
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I have multiple areas of the canonical domain that have to be translated to a resistance value in the physical domain(with the intermediate step of a logarithm). Is the resistance (defined analogous to electrical resitance) that can be calculated in the homogeneous field of the canonical domain directly related to the resitance in the phyisical domain? The geometry of a resistor in the canonical domain is a simple rectangle formed from four prevertices. In the physical domain it is far more complicated (see figure).
The measure of resistance can be formulated with the help of an "equivalent length". Could it be that this $\Lambda$ is not affected by the conformal tranformations? \begin{align} &R=\rho\dfrac{1}{\Lambda}\\ &\text{cylinder gives: } &\Lambda_\text{cyl}=\frac{2\pi \ell}{\log\frac{r_2}{r_1}}\\ &\text{cuboid gives: } &\Lambda_\text{cub}=\dfrac{A}{\ell} \end{align}
I have done some calculations by discretising the physical domain and comparing it to the resistance generated in the canonical domain. The results were comparable, maybe because of accident, maybe because of a strong mathematical implication, I can't say.
Question in short: Can the prevertices that define a rectangle in the canonical domain define the resistance value of the mapped rectangle in the phyisical domain. (With the intermidate step of a logarithm)
I use the SC-Toolbox for Matlab created by Tobin A. Driscoll.
EDIT: Addition
Lets say that we have a rectangle which has been rotated and translated (Möbius transformations if you want) so that its sides are perpendiculary oriented to the real and imaginary axis, one of its vertices is (0,0) and that it is in the 1st quadrant. We have to calculate its resistance.
Lets say the opposite vertex of (0,0) is $z=x+iy=|z|e^{i\varphi}$, the imaginary part of $z$ represents the length of the path, while the real part represents the projected area(the area is only visible in 3D, we are looking at it in 2D). We write $R'$ because of the 2D representation.
The resistance of this rectangle will therefore be: \begin{align} R'=\rho \frac{\mathfrak{Im}(z)}{\mathfrak{Re}(z)} \end{align} Which can be written as: \begin{align} R'&=\rho \frac{|z|\sin\varphi}{|z|\cos\varphi}=\rho \frac{\sin\varphi}{\cos\varphi}\\ R'&=\rho\tan\varphi \end{align}
The thing that the resistance is only dependent on the angle $\varphi$ and the definition of conformal transformations as angle preserving, provoked me to ask this question. I found a lot about space being conformally invariant, but in this case it is a function that is discussed.
I'm not sure how to proceed. I can prove that the transformations(maps) are conformal, but I don't know what to do about a function in the canonical space.