Please give me feedback for my answer to this question.
Question: (1) Are the boolean functions $(p \land \neg q) \lor ( \neg r \land q)$ and $(p \lor \neg q) \land (r \lor \neg q)$ equal?. Explain your answer.
My Answer: -
No, they are not equal because they are different. By computing $p=1, q=1, r=1$ into the functions, then $(p \land \neg q) \lor ( \neg r \land q) = 0$ and $(p \lor \neg q) \land (r \lor \neg q) = 1$. Therefore, they are not equal because their outcome is different.
Same if I compute $p=0, q=0, r=0,$ they will not equal.