0
$\begingroup$

Please give me feedback for my answer to this question.

Question: (1) Are the boolean functions $(p \land \neg q) \lor ( \neg r \land q)$ and $(p \lor \neg q) \land (r \lor \neg q)$ equal?. Explain your answer.

My Answer: -

No, they are not equal because they are different. By computing $p=1, q=1, r=1$ into the functions, then $(p \land \neg q) \lor ( \neg r \land q) = 0$ and $(p \lor \neg q) \land (r \lor \neg q) = 1$. Therefore, they are not equal because their outcome is different.

Same if I compute $p=0, q=0, r=0,$ they will not equal.

$\endgroup$
  • $\begingroup$ That's really difficult to read because you mix logical conjunctions with natural language particles. $\endgroup$ – mathse Apr 14 '14 at 22:54
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Yeah, it was. I've added $\LaTeX$ to make things clearer. $\endgroup$ – Graham Kemp Apr 14 '14 at 22:57
2
$\begingroup$

Your reasoning is completely correct. You have demonstrated a counterexample (two, in fact) to the proposition that the two expressions are equal.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.