My question is about characterizing accumulation points in terms of convergent sequences in a set $X$. I take the following definition of an accumulation point:
- A point $x_0$ is an accumulation point of a set $X$ if all neighborhoods of $x_0$ contain an infinite points of $X$.
Consider the following assertion: $x_0$ is an accumulation point of $X$ if and only if there is a sequence $\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ in $X$ with $x_n \rightarrow x_0$ and $x_n \neq x_0$ for $n=1,2,...$
Proof: Take $\epsilon_1=1$. The existence of a point $x_1 \in X$ with $0<|x_1-x_0|<\epsilon_1=1$ is guaranteed. Now take $\epsilon_2=|x_1-x_0|/2$ and choose an $x_2 \in X$ with $0<|x_2-x_0|< \epsilon_2$. In general, choose $x_n \in X$ that satisfies $0<|x_n-x_0|< \epsilon_n=\frac{|x_1-x_0|}{2^n}<\frac 1{2^n}$. It is clear that $x_n \rightarrow x_0$ and $x_n \neq x_0$ for $n=1,2,...$
Question: Is this correct?