If we define $$ f(x)=\begin{cases} x&x\geq0\\ -1&x<0 \end{cases} $$ To prove that $\lim_{x\to0}f(x)$ does not exist, what am I required to do?
I already know that if $\lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)\not=\lim_{x\to a^-}f(x)$, then $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)$ does not exist. Is stating this theorem the proof of the above question or in order to prove it I somehow need to use precise definition of the limit?