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I have a question related to set theory.

If $A_1,A_2,A_3\dots, A_n$ belongs to universal set $U$, and if all of the sets are disjoint i.e. $A_i \cap A_j = \emptyset$ for all $i$ and $j$.

And If their union equals to Universal set i.e. $A_1 \cup A_2 \cup \dots A_n = U $ = Universal set.

What is such situation called?

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migrated from mathoverflow.net Mar 16 '14 at 20:20

This question came from our site for professional mathematicians.

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    $\begingroup$ It's called a Partition! $\endgroup$ – Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen Mar 16 '14 at 19:12
  • $\begingroup$ @Bjørn: If none of the sets is empty, of course. $\endgroup$ – Asaf Karagila Mar 16 '14 at 20:35
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    $\begingroup$ Thanks a lot for answer.Sorry couldnt acknowledge answer as I was not well.My hearty thanks and sincerest apologies to naslundx,bjorn and asaf. $\endgroup$ – Pruthviraj Chauhan Apr 15 '14 at 15:13
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If every $A_i$ is nonempty, you have described a partition of the set $U$.

The definition holds for any set, not just for the current universal set. If the union of disjoint (non-empty) sets equal any set $X$, we say in the same way that we have a partition of $X$.

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  • $\begingroup$ You have to require that none of the $A_i$ are empty, though. $\endgroup$ – Asaf Karagila Mar 16 '14 at 20:35
  • $\begingroup$ @asafKaragila Thanks, added that information. $\endgroup$ – naslundx Mar 16 '14 at 20:37

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