The interior product of a 2-form $\beta$ and vector field $X$ is defined by
$(i_X\beta)(Y)=\beta(X,Y)$
where $Y$ is a vector field.
This is the definition of a 2-form (and it's similar for a p-form, just extended) but I don't understand what this definition means by $Y$? Just any old vector field that we can choose? Surely $Y$ has to be subject to certain constraints and are these just assumed implicitly? e.g $Y$ has to the same dimension of $X$? Or is it slightly more subtle than this? My confusion gets even worse With a p-form, as then we have $p-1$ of these new vector fields!
I'll show you an example I was trying to understand before reverting back to this ambiguous (hopefully not for long) definition for clarity, and failing:
$\textit{Compute the interior product of X and} \space d\omega \space \textit{where}$
$X=y\frac{\partial}{\partial x}+2z\frac{\partial}{\partial y}+3xy\frac{\partial}{\partial z}$,
$\omega=2zdx+3xdy-7zx^2dz$.
So I know how to find
$d\omega=3dx \wedge dy -(14zx+2) dx \wedge dz$
and as $d\omega$ is a 2-form, we use the formula right at the top. But what is $Y$ in this case??
Besides this even, what does it mean by, for example, $\omega(X)$? i.e the interior product of the 1-form $\omega$ with the vector field $X$.