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Can anyone exaplain me why:

$$ \iint\dfrac{\partial^2 \xi(x,y)}{\partial x\partial x}\mathop{}\!\mathrm{d}x\mathop{}\!\mathrm{d}x=\xi(x,y)+xc_1 +c_2 $$ ?

I would like to have a simple proof if is possible!

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Hint: Differentiate both sides with respect to $x$ twice.

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  • $\begingroup$ I was about to say "thanks Sherlock." $\endgroup$
    – Shahar
    Commented Mar 9, 2014 at 23:52
  • $\begingroup$ I'm sorry my bad! Now is the definitive edit! $\endgroup$
    – Aurelius
    Commented Mar 9, 2014 at 23:52
  • $\begingroup$ @FormlessCloud The hint still applies. $\endgroup$
    – Git Gud
    Commented Mar 9, 2014 at 23:52
  • $\begingroup$ I'm so retarded! Thank you! $\endgroup$
    – Aurelius
    Commented Mar 10, 2014 at 0:04
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    $\begingroup$ @FormlessCloud No problem. I've failed worse than you did now, don't worry. $\endgroup$
    – Git Gud
    Commented Mar 10, 2014 at 0:22

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