This comes from the comments section of this question here, credits Lucian.
The statement is
$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(e-\sum_{k=0}^n\frac1{k!}\right)=1$$
This looks really interesting, so I was wondering if anyone has any ideas/suggestions or even better the whole proof?
Disclaimer: I added that link specifically because this might look like homework, leading to "What have you tried?". So the disclaimer is, I actually haven't tried anything yet, because yes, asking the community is just easier. It would be great if someone could answer this though since I, personally at least, think that this equation is very interesting and adds value to any math enthusiast stumbling upon it here someday. :) I will myself be trying it meanwhile too though(it really is interesting) , and add and accept my solution if I am successful and there are no answers yet.
I tried wolfram alpha for $\sum_{k=0}^n\frac1{k!}$ and it yields
$$\sum_{k=0}^n\frac1{k!} = \frac{e\Gamma (n+1,1)}{\Gamma(n+1)}$$
where $\Gamma(a,r)$ is the incomplete gamma function and $\Gamma(a)$ is the euler gamma function. Documentation here. Might be of help, might not. Just thought it'd be worth adding.