I posted this question yesterday, and, despite getting answers, I am still confused how to solve it:
Use Taylor's theorem to prove that $\displaystyle\lim_{n \to \infty} n \ln\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)=1$
I know the Taylor expansion of ln(1+x) is $x-\frac{1}{2}x^2+ \frac{1}{3}x^3 ...$, but I don't see what this gives me.
Also, one respondent posted: ln(1+t)=t+o(t), and I don't understand how this follows by the Theorem...