# Integral $\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{(1+x^m)(1+x^2)}\,dx$ [duplicate]

I saw somewhere that the above integral is equal to $\pi/4$ for all real number $m$.

This seems to be surprising. Does anyone have a nice proof?

## marked as duplicate by J.R., Daniel Fischer, user127.0.0.1, Claude Leibovici, Yiorgos S. SmyrlisMar 2 '14 at 17:12

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

• This should not be surprising: let $x\mapsto x^{-1}$ and you will get the same integral with an extra factor of $x^m$. Add both and you've gotten rid of $m$. – Julien Godawatta Mar 2 '14 at 15:00

## 1 Answer

Let

\begin{align} I(m) &= \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{(1+x^m)(1+x^2)}\tag{x = t^{-1}}\\ &= \int_0^\infty \frac{t^{-2}\,dt}{(1+t^{-m})(1+t^{-2})}\\ &= \int_0^\infty \frac{dt}{(1+t^{-m})(1+t^2)}\\ &= I(-m). \end{align}

But

\begin{align} I(m) + I(-m) &= \int_0^\infty \left(\frac{1}{1+x^m} + \frac{1}{1+x^{-m}}\right)\frac{dx}{1+x^2}\\ &= \int_0^\infty \left(\frac{1}{1+x^m} + \frac{x^m}{1+x^{m}}\right)\frac{dx}{1+x^2}\\ &= \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^2}\\ &= \frac{\pi}{2}. \end{align}

• Beat me to it :-) (+1) – robjohn Mar 2 '14 at 15:17
• You typed too slowly here, it seems. – Daniel Fischer Mar 2 '14 at 15:18
• Yeah, I had to look up the prior post. I believe that this question is a duplicate, however. – robjohn Mar 2 '14 at 15:21
• Wouldn't surprise me. But I have no idea what terms to search for to find a duplicate. If you do, go ahead. – Daniel Fischer Mar 2 '14 at 15:25
• Found it here, and my answer is the same as yours :-) – robjohn Mar 2 '14 at 15:27