Prove that $\overline{A\cup B} = \overline{A}\cup\overline{B}$ and $\overline{A\cap B}\subseteq\overline{A}\cap\overline{B}$
My attempt: $x\in\overline{A\cup B}$ iff for every open set $U$ containing $x$, $U\cap\ (A\cup B)\neq\varnothing$. This happens iff $(U\cap A)\cup (U\cap B)\neq\varnothing$, and this happens iff $U\cap A\neq\varnothing$ or $U\cap B\neq\varnothing$, and this happens iff $x\in\overline{A}$ or $x\in\overline{B}$, and this is true iff $x\in\overline{A}\cup\overline{B}$. So $\overline{A\cup B} = \overline{A}\cup\overline{B}$
If $x\in A\cap B$, then $x\in A$ and $x\in B$, which implies $x\in\overline{A}$ and $x\in\overline{B}$ (since closure of $E$ is the smallest closed set containing $E$), so $x\in\overline{A}\cap\overline{B}$. This shows that $A\cap B\subseteq\overline{A}\cap\overline{B}$, and since $\overline{A}$ and $\overline{B}$ are both closed, $\overline{A}\cap\overline{B}$ is closed. But by definition, $\overline{A\cap B}$ is a subset of every closed set containing $A\cap B$, so $\overline{A\cap B}\subseteq\overline{A}\cap\overline{B}$.
Do my proofs look correct?