I found a statement that the second derivative can be defined as:
$$\lim_{x \to a} \frac{f '(x)-f '(a)}{x-a}$$.
Does this definion follow from the definition of the first derivative as:
$$f ' (x) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$
If so, how? If not, where does it come from?
Edit: Mistake corrected, sorry.