I'm working on an assignment where part of it is showing that $S_k=0$ for even $k$ and $S_k=1$ for odd $k$, where
$$S_k:=\sum_{j=0}^{n}\cos(k\pi x_j)= \frac{1}{2}\sum_{j=0}^{n}(e^{ik\pi x_{j}}+e^{-ik\pi x_{j}}) $$
Here $x_j=j/(n+1)$.
So, working through the algebra:
$$\frac{1}{2}\sum_{j=0}^{n}(e^{ik\pi x_{j}} +e^{-ik\pi x_{j}}) =\dots =\frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1-e^{ik\pi}}{1-e^{\frac{ik\pi}{n+1}}}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1-e^{-ik\pi}}{1-e^{-\frac{ik\pi}{n+1}}} $$
Obviously $S_k=0$ for even $k$'s, since $e^{i\pi\cdot\text{even integer}}=1$. But when $k$ is odd we get $$\frac{1}{1-e^{\frac{ik\pi}{n+1}}}+\frac{1}{1-e^{-\frac{ik\pi}{n+1}}}$$ which isn't obviously one to me, at least. Wolfram alpha confirms it equals 1.
My question: How does one see that it equals 1?