I came across this question on another forum. The question is:
$$ \text{If $m,n\in \mathbb{Z}_+$ such that $3m^2+m=4n^2+n$, then $(m-n)$ is a perfect square.}$$
I have managed to partially prove this using this question as motivation as follows.
Let $m>n$ and $k^2 = m-n$. The problem then becomes to show $k$ is an integer. Making the substitution $m=n+k^2$ we get
$$3(n+k^2)^2+(n+k^2) = 4n^2+n$$
And solving for $n$ yields
$$n = 3k^2\pm |k|\sqrt{12k^2+1}$$
So $n$ will be an integer if and only if $12k^2+1$ is a perfect square. This is where the previous question comes in. We want all solutions $(k,N)$ to $12k^2+1=N^2$, i.e. $$N^2-12k^2=1$$ Using Pell's equation and Wikipedia (Pell Equation) as a guide we find the fundamental solution as $y_1=k=2, x_1=N=7$, and hence all other solutions are $x_i, y_i$ where $$x_i+y_i\sqrt{12} = \left(7+2\sqrt{12}\right)^i.$$
It is not hard to see $y_i$ is an integer for all $i$. My conclusion is then: If $(m,n)$ is a solution then $k^2=(m-n)\in S=\{y_i^2\}_{i=1}^{\infty} = \{2^2, 28^2, 390^2,...\}$.
My questions are:
$\ \ \ \bullet$ I made the assumption that $m>n$, is this easy to show?
$\ \ \ \bullet$ If $y\in S$, is there always a solution $(m,n)$ with $(m-n)=y$ ?
$\ \ \ \bullet$ More importantly: Is there an easier way to prove this?