Is it true that $\sum_{k=1}^{m+n} \binom {m+n}k k^m (-1)^k=0 , \forall m,n\in \mathbb N$ ?
I feel that it is true because if we define $H_1 (x,r)=rx(1+x)^{r-1}$ , and
$H_{m+1}(x,r)=x \dfrac d {dx} {H_m (x,r)}$ , then $H_m (x,r)=\sum_{k=1}^{r} \binom {r}k k^m x^k$ and I have noticed , for first few $m$
that we can write $H_m (x,r)=\sum_{i=1}^m f(x,r,i)(1+x)^{r-i}$ , for some function $f$ so I thought that if I
let $r>m$ , then I should have $H_m (-1,r)=0$ i.e. $H_m (-1,m+n)=0$ ,(since $m+n>n$) but I am not totally sure .
Note:- $ 0\notin \mathbb N$